Let’s just check if it’s true for some $ \PR(G=x \cap B=y) = \PR(G=x) \cdot \PR(B=y) $
Determine $\PR(G=0)$
They have 0 girls
This happens when 2 boys pop out one after the other
$\PR(G=0) = \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{4}$
Determine $\PR(B=0)$
They have 0 boys
This happens when 2 girls pop out one after the other
$\PR(B=0) = \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{4}$
Determine $\PR(G=0 \cap B=0)$
They have 0 girls and 0 boys? This never happens. They need to get preggers and have babies
$\PR(G=0 \cap B=0) = 0$
Profit
$\PR(G=0 \cap B=0) = \PR(G=0) \cdot \PR(B=0)$
$0 \neq \frac{1}{4} \cdot \frac{1}{4}$
Therefore, the random variables $G$ and $B$ are not independent.